Transportation Systems Exam Review
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 1.01
1. Transportation consumes:
A. 50% of the typical America's free time.
B. Less energy than the residential sector.
C. 5% of all the energy consumed in the United States.
D. 25% of all the energy consumed in the United States.
2. The cost of transportation makes a large economic impact
on people's lives. What percentage of personal income do average
American adults spend on transportation?
A. 9%
B. 15%
C. 28%
D. 42%
3. All land transportation systems (highway, rail, and pipeline)
share one major environmental and economic impact:
A. Very high air pollution
B. High rates of fatal accidents
C. The consumption of large amounts of land
D. Noise pollution
4. Technology used to move people and products is one definition of:
A. Communication
B. Manufacturing
C. Structural Systems
D. Transportation
5. Out of all the energy used in transportation systems, over half is used by:
A. Railroads
B. Airplanes
C. Automobiles
D. Pipelines
6. Which of the following have caused the greatest increase in automobile accidents?
A. Foreign imports
B. Excess speeds
C. Vehicle system failures
D.Poorly maintained roads
7. Transportation systems produce more of this than any other industry.
A. Methane gas
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Ozone
8. Generally, North Carolina's transportation systems:
A. Improve our quality of life
B. Make people poorer
C. Have little affect upon the environment
D. Are a very small portion of the state budget
9. An efficient transportation system contributes to which of the following?
A. Social needs
B. Economic needs
C. Strategic defense
D. All of the above
10. A combination of parts or sub-systems working together for a common purpose defines:
A. Transportation
B. System
C. Process
D. Knowledge
11. Transportation systems depend on the other systems of technology. Of the four systems of technology, which would not be integrated with transportation?
A. Communication systems
B. Manufacturing systems
C. Construction structural systems
D. Systems model
12. Entropy is a process of making something more random as a result of some kind of human or naturally occurring interaction. Which of the following is/are the best example(s) of entropy in a transportation system?
A. Exhaust emitted from the tailpipe of a car
B. 25% of input energy in a gasoline engine is lost because of entropy
C. Thermal energy from transportation systems
D. All of the above
13. Transportation is best defined as:
A. Automobiles
B. Any technology that is used to move people and products within a society
C. A system that moves only people within a society
D. Oil flowing through a pipeline
14. Transportation systems do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Improve the quality of life through greater choices
B. Satisfy human needs like the need for leisure
C. Provide Americans with 50% of all the jobs in the U.S.
D. Provide for strategic defense
15. Without the automobile, which of the following structures would NOT be needed in your community?
A. ATM machines
B. Local tire company
C. Filling station
D. All of the above
16. As a civilized society develops, its transportation system:
A. Changes the way in which people live
B. Decreases the interchange of ideas
C. Decreases the need for more possessions
D. Does not effect the society at all
17. One advantage of transportation is:
A. Pollution
B. Increased speed
C. Congested product movement
D. General lack of improvement in our lives
18. Which of the following is not an advantage of transportation?
A. Speed
B. People movement
C. Product movement
D. Uses up about 25% of fossil fuels
19. One disadvantage of transportation is:
A. The great number of accidents
B. Better national defense
C. Increased independence for people
D. Increased commercial gain
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 1.02
1. An example of intermodal transportation is the movement of:
A. Oil through a pipeline
B. Airfreight
C. People on trains and escalators
D. Cyclists
2. A water vessel that rides on a cushion of air is a:
A. Hydrofoil
B. Hovercraft
C. Jet ski
D. Gunwale
3. Freight, transported to a harbor by rail, is taken by boat to another destination. This product movement is an example of:
A. Interim transportation
B. Multi-method transportation
C. Intermodal transportation
D. Intracoastal transportation
4. At the present usage rates, which of the following methods of transporting freight consumes as much energy as all of the other three combined?
A. Pipeline
B. Railroad
C. Waterway
D. Truck
5. In air transportation, an example of a vertical take-off vehicle is a:
A. Helicopter
B. Rocket
C. Glider
D. Piper Cub
6. A dirigible is a rigid lighter-than-air vehicle kept afloat by:
A. Hot air
B. Propane
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium
7. Low noise output, low theft rate, and no traffic congestion are special advantages of:
A. Highway trucking systems
B. Pipeline systems
C. Railroad systems
D. Intercostal waterways
8. The type of transportation that operates in the earth's atmosphere is:
A. Air transportation
B. Space transportation
C. Suspension transportation
D. Take-off transportation
9. Because of its cost effectiveness and relative slowness, most water transportation business involves the movement of:
A. People
B. Coal
C. Freight
D. None of the above
10. An example of a heavier-than-air craft is a:
A. Glider
B. Balloon
C. Dirigible
D. Blimp
11. The aircraft which can lift and transport the heaviest loads is a:
A. Dirigible
B. Helicopter
C. Hovercraft
D. Commercial plane
12. When compared to commuter trains, the private automobile has the following advantage:
A. Reduced pollution
B. Reduced traffic congestion
C. Increased flexibility
D. Reduced accidents
13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of shipping cargo by water?
A. Slow travel
B. More expensive
C. High theft rate
D. All of the above
14. Which of the following is an advantage of shipping cargo by water?
A. Relatively low cost
B. Ability to move large volumes and bulky materials
C. Movement between continents
D. All of the above
15. Ability to carry large and heavy loads at a low cost per mile and low pollution are special advantages of:
A. Highway trucking systems
B. Railroad systems
C. Air freight systems
D. Hovercraft
16. One mode of lighter-than-air transportation is:
A. Hydrofoils
B. Hovercrafts
C. Airfoils
D. Dirigibles
17. You are in charge of creating a transportation system for moving water from a lake to the city. Which of the following would probably be the most efficient means of moving the water?
A. Truck
B. Train
C. Buses
D. Pipeline
18. Intermodal transportation requires a significant amount of:
A. Time and money
B. Planning and coordination
C. Goods and services
D. Advertising
19. You have a very large cargo to transport from Raleigh, NC to Atlanta, Ga. Which of the following modes of transportation will be the most efficient?
A. Car
B. Bus
C. Airplane
D. Railroad
20. Air transportation refers to a craft which operates in the earth's atmosphere. It is divided into two categories, one of which is lighter-than-air, the other is:
A. Balloons
B. Heavier-than air
C. Military planes
D. Space transportation
21. A good example of an air transportation vehicle is:
A. Missile
B. Satellite
C. Cargo plane
D. Shuttle
22. Space transportation is divided into manned and unmanned; an example of manned is:
A. Missiles
B.Space probes
C. Vehicular units
D. Deep space probes
23. Which of these is NOT a good example of intermodal transportation?
A. Is the use of more than one mode of transportation
B. Requires a great deal planning and coordination
C. Relies on the use of a single mode of transportation
D. Movement of goods such as produce
24. Which of the following are NOT methods of intermodal transportation?
A. Walking
B. COFC
C. TOFC
D. Shipping container-ships
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 1.03
1. Sails, jet engines, and electric motors are examples of:
A. Propulsion systems
B. Guidance systems
C. Control systems
D. Suspension system
2. The parts of a vehicle that hold the things to be carried and the rest of the vehicle's systems are called its:
A. Suspension system
B. Control system
C. Structural system
D. Storage system
3. The parts of a vehicle that support the vehicle in its environment (such as the wings on an airplane) are called the:
A. Control system
B. Suspension system
C. Guidance system
D. Conversion system
4. Stabilizer bars, springs, and tires are all part of a car's:
A. Control system
B. Guidance system
C. Suspension system
D. Conversion system
5. The parts of a vehicle that are used to change a vehicle's direction and speed are part of the vehicle's:
A. Propulsion system
B. Suspension system
C. Guidance system
D. Control system
6. The system of a vehicle, that converts energy to produce power, that moves the vehicle is called its:
A. Control system
B. Suspension system
C. Conversion system
D. Propulsion system
7. No transportation vehicle could move without a source of:
A. Compression
B. Combustion
C. Traction
D. Propulsion
8. A car's body is an example of a:
A. Suspension system
B. Control system
C. Storage system
D. Structural system
9. Engines, magnetic levitation and nuclear energy are used in which system?
A. Propulsion system
B. Combustion system
C. Exhaustion system
D. Conversion system
10. Information required by a vehicle to follow a particular path or to perform a certain task is provided by a/an:
A. Coordinate
B. Operator manual
C. Guidance system
D. Control system
11. While riding her bicycle to the store, Gina sees a sign indicating road construction ahead. The sign is an example of which system?
A. Propulsion system
B. Suspension system
C. Guidance system
D. Control system
12. Examples of propulsion systems can be all of the following except:
A. Sails
B. Wheels
C. Jet engines
D. Electric motors
13. An example of a guidance system is a:
A. Compass
B. Boat hull
C. Car frame and body
D. Fuselage
14. Vehicular control systems allow direction and/or speed changes; which of the following best relates to control systems?
A. An aircraft fuselage
B.Degrees of freedom
C. External operations that support transportation systems
D. A navigator
15. Vehicular structural systems are an important sub-system; which analogy best finishes the statement: a fuselage is to an airplane as a/an:
A. Hull is to a boat
B. A tire is to a car
C. Engine is to gasoline
D. Steering wheel is to a bike
16. Vehicular support systems are crucial in the areas of:
A. Maintenance
B. Life support
C. Legal support
D. All of the above
17. The conversion and transmission of energy is the function of what vehicular subsystem?
A. Control
B. Guidance
C. Suspension
D. Propulsion
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 2.01
1. If you were working with a team which wanted to generate as many creative ideas and solutions to a problem as quickly as possible, which of the following "quality tools" would you suggest the team use?
A. Brainstorming
B. Cause and effect diagram
C. Gantt Chart
D. Analytical Criteria Method
2. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Brainstorming?
A. Free of criticism and judgement
B. Increases the likelihood of one or two people to dominate a group
C. Helps members build on other team members ideas
D. Generated many ideas in a short time
3. Which of the following would come first in Brainstorming?
A. Generate many ideas as quickly as possible
B. Criticize the ideas as quickly as they are offered
C. Explain in detail each idea before going on to the next one
D. Identify exactly what the central question or problem is
4. There are two types of "quality tools" (teaming and analytical). A "teaming tool" is one which helps a team work together well by treating each other with respect and letting everyone participate. An "analytical tool" is one which helps the team understand better whatever it is they are studying. Which of the following is a "teaming tool"?
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. Activity Network Diagram
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. None of the above
5. There are two types of "quality tools" (teaming and analytical). A "teaming tool" is one which helps a team work together well. An "analytical tool" is one which helps the team understand better whatever it is they are studying. Which of the following is an "analytical tool"?
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. Brainstorming
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. None of the above
6. If you were working with a team which was having trouble reaching an agreement on which goals were most important, which of the following "quality tools" would you suggest the team to use?
A. Brainstorming
B. Nominal Group Technique
C. Flowchart
D. Activity Network Diagram
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Nominal Group Technique "quality tool"?
A It makes it more likely that every team member participates
B. It requires each member to give a "value" to suggestions
C. It helps the team focus on major issues
D. It is very complex and difficult to apply
8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a well organized team?
A. Team has well-defined purpose
B. Team uses "quality tools"
C. A leader who can make the most important decisions for the team
D. The team makes decisions based on data and knowledge-based methods
9. The quality tool used to determine the "Driving Forces" and "Restraining Forces" for a problem or issue is the:
A. Cause and Effect Diagram Method
B. Force Field Analysis Method
C. Nominal Group Technique
D. Run Chart
10. What is the fourth step of the DEAL Problem Solving Method?
A. Learn perceptual patterns
B. Listen to other people's ideas
C. Look back and learn from the effects of your activities
D.List all possible solutions to the problem
11. The quality tool which is designed to give everyone in the group an equal voice is the:
A. Cause and Effect Process
B.Force Field Analysis Method
C. Nominal Group Technique
D. Equal Interaction Method
12. What is the first component of the DEAL approach to problem solving?
A. Dealing with the problem
B. Defining the problem
C. Determining solutions to existing problems
D. Describing possible strategies
13. What is the third component of the DEAL approach to problem solving?
A. Approaching the problem
B. Activating concepts
C. Acting upon the best possible solutions
D. Analyzing the problem
14. What is the second component of the approach to problem solving?
A. Explore all possible solutions
B. External representation of the problem
C. Explaining details of the problem
D. Extracting data concerning the problem
15. If a complex project needed to be charted out to see sequence and time of each step, which TQM tool would best be used?
A. Gantt chart
B. DEAL problem-solving framework
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Cause and Effect diagram
16. There is a shortage of Technology Education teachers; if we wanted to focus on the root causes of the problem rather than symptoms, which would be the best tool to use?
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. DEAL problem-solving framework
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. Gantt Chart
17. When using the DEAL problem-solving method to find out why a computer will not boot up properly, the first step is to:
A. Explore alternatives
B. Act on the best solution
C. Look back and evaluate
D. Define the problem
18. If you are said to put yourself in the place of the product designed in order to view a problem from all possible perspectives, this is what TQM tool?
A. Brainstorming
B. Sketching and doodling
C. Incubation
D. Synectics
19. If you cannot arrive at a good solution right away, you might choose to step back and give your mind time to rest, this is called:
A. Weighting
B. Prototyping
C. Incubation
D. DEAL problem-solving
20. To consider the pros and cons of a problem, a team of designers would probably:
A. Use the DEAL problem-solver
B. Use weighting
C.Set up a Gantt chart
D. Use the Analytical Criteria method
21. To encourage the creation of new ideas, one would most likely use which tool?
A. Brainstorming
B. Fishbone
C. Flowchart
D. Nominal Group techniques
22. To avoid a win/loose situation in a meeting, which tool could be used to reach a consensus?
A. Nominal Group technique
B. Flowchart
C. DEAL problem-solving
D. Gannt chart
23. After exploring all of the proposed possible solutions, the next step in the DEAL problem-solving process is:
A. Define's the problem
B. Exploring all possible solutions
C. Acting on the best solution
D. Looking back and evaluating
24. Without a management process, the transportation system would be chaotic. Generally, the four functions of management are planning, organizing, implementing and:
A. Communicating
B. Controlling
C. Reviewing
D. Supervising
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 2.03
1. When finished working with sharp-pointed or sharp-edged tools, put them:
A. In any available drawer
B. On the edge of the work table
C. On the floor next to your feet
D. In their proper storage area
2. Before using tools or machines which can cause injury you should always:
A. Review the appropriate safety manual
B. Ask a friend for help
C. Ask your teacher for permission
D. Check the condition of all circuit-breakers connected to the equipment
3. Safety glasses must be worn:
A. Only when operating a machine
B. Only when one is producing dust or metal particles
C. Only when grinding metals
D. Whenever one is in the technology lab
4. Which of the following is the most important safety consideration to observe while launching model rockets?
A. The launch team should wear leather gloves
B. Everyone must wear safety glasses
C. The launch pad must be made of asbestos
D. There must be at least an 8-mile-per-hour wind to prevent rockets from landing on the observation team
5. When refueling a fuel tank it should:
A. Be filled to the very top
B. Have space left for fuel expansion
C. Never be touched on the spout
D. Be filled quickly
6. If you are not sure how to use a laboratory machine you should:
A. Ask your teacher for help
B. Experiment with the machine by yourself until it works
C. Take the machine apart to see how it works
D. Ask someone else to work the machine for you
7. When working around machinery or electrical equipment one must:
A. Remove all jewelry
B. Tie back long hair
C. Wear safety glasses
D. Do all of the above
8. Charged batteries should be kept:
A. In well ventilated areas
B. In sealed containers
C. Near a heat source
D. Near welding stations
9. When loosening a stuck bolt or nut, you should push the wrench with:
A. All fingers wrapped tightly around the handle
B. A slightly larger wrench
C. An open hand
D. A hammer, screwdriver, or lever
10. A hot engine should:
A. Only be touched safely on the cylinders
B. Not be covered with rags
C. Only be touched safely on the exhaust system
D. Be covered with plastic sheets
11. In a technology lab, when should both safety glasses and face shields be worn?
A. When performing any type of lab work
B. When working with motors or engines
C. When working with sharp-pointed or sharp-edged tools
D. When working with grinders
12. Engines parts should be cleaned with:
A. Gasoline
B. Kerosene
C. Neoprene
D. Ethylene
13. A headache, nausea, ringing in the ears, and tiredness are symptoms of:
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Food poisoning
C. Electrical shock
D. None of the above
14. When lifting something heavy:
A. Avoid using your back muscles
B. Lift with your back not your legs
C. Drag it across the floor to where you want it
D. All of the above
15. Which of the following are appropriate lab rules?
A. Accidents are reported at once
B. No running in the lab
C. No horseplay is allowed
D. All of the above
16. When you first come to technology education class, what is one of the first things you should learn?
A. Emergency escape routes
B. How to use the wind tunnel
C. What projects will be assigned
D. How to measure
17. When you set down a large piece of plywood or move a cart of material out of the way, be sure that:
A. You get help moving it
B. You do not block access to the fire extinguisher or fire alarm
C. The material does not go to waste
D. It is stored correctly at the end of class
18. When you finish using a tool:
A. Put it back in storage
B. Give it to someone who will eventually need it
C. Leave it where you are working; you might need it again
D. Coat it with oil to prevent rusting
19. When you are using the portable electric tools and the only electrical outlet is across the room from where you want to work, you should be careful to make sure:
A. If you use several extension cords to reach that you are not exceeding their usage specifications
B. You use tow prong cords only
C. The extension cords do not cross walk aisles
D. Both A and C
20. When you see your friend sawing wood, and you want to say something important to your friend, you should:
A. Walk up to the machine
B. Go ahead and talk to your friend so he or she will know about the important information
C. Wait until your friend is finished working
D. Both A and B
21. You just finished cutting a large sheet of plywood. When you go store it:
A. Bend over to pick it up
B. Squat down, with your back straight, to pick it up
C. Store it in the correct rack in a stable position
D. Both B and C
22. After you finish cleaning the lab, what should you do with the broom?
A. Leave it for the next class
B. Hang it up so no one trips over it
C. Lean it against the machine that makes the most mess
D. Let a friend hang it up; teamwork is important
23. Your teacher has several bench-top band saws, and the one you want to use was just moved to another workbench. Make sure:
A. The power is on
B.The speed is set high
C. The speed is set low
D. It is anchored correctly
24. You just finished sawing a piece of plastic. Now you need to glue it to something. What should you do before you leave the machine?
A. Make sure it comes to a complete stop
B. Blow the dust off of the machine
C. Leave the leftover stock at the machine for someone else to use
D. Remove the blade
25. When your friend turned on the tablesaw, the blade cut into the guard. What did your friend do wrong?
A. He did not remove the old stock from another cut
B. He did not make sure the blade turned freely
C. He set the guard with the power cord unplugged
D. He set the angle of the blade too far over
26. When you turned on the saw, a piece of wood flew across the lab. What did you do wrong?
A. Had the blade set too high
B. Did not make sure the blade turned freely
C. Did not use a guard
D. Did not clear the machine table of old stock and debris
27. You know what your design is for your problem solution, and you know what machine operation needs to be done first. Next:
A. Go make the cut
B. Set up the machine correctly
C. Clamp the work piece onto the machine table
D. Ask your instructor's permission to use the machine
28. When using machines that tend to spray material or use heat, wear safety glasses and:
A. Loose clothing
B. A face shield
C. Fire proof clothing
D. Always wear gloves no matter what the operation
29. You are in a hurry because you have to turn in your project in five minutes or the teacher will count it as a zero. Which of the following statements are important to remember in this situation?
A. Never run in the lab
B. Do not hurry with the operations you need to finish
C. The project grade is not as important as everyone's safety
D. All of the above
30. When using a machine which normally generates high decibels:
A. Wear hearing protection
B. Turn the machine off
C. Do not use the machine
D. Complain to the instructor
31. If you are using a razor tool like an Exacto knife, and you are using a steel rule to guide the cut, you should hold the steel rule:
A. Loosely
B. With your had behind the direction of the cut
C. With your hand in front of the direction of the cut
D. Ask your friend to hold the steel rule
32. If you are trying to drill or cut something and you are afraid it will spin or slide on the table, you should:
A. Ask a friend to hold the work for you
B. Try holding the work real firmly
C. Push the work up against the wall to hold it still
D. Use clamps to hold the work securely
33. If you scored 90% of the questions on the drill safety test correctly, then you:
A. cannot use the drill press until you score 100% correctly
B. Should be able to use the drill press because 90% is an "A"
C. Could still use the drill press because you could pass the performance (hands-on) test
D. Could just avoid ever using the machine because you do not want to study for a re-test
34. If you saw that the and saw blade is broken:
A. Replace the blade since you know where the new blades are stored.
B. Tell the instructor
C. Remove the bad blade
D. None of the above
35. When you were placing oil on the piston of the small engine, some drops spilled on the floor. What is your reaction?
A. Clean up all spills immediately
B. Clean with soap and water
C. It is normal to have oil on the floor in transportation class
D. Clean it up after you finish the lesson
36. Once you wipe oil off of an engine part:
A. Toss the rag in the sawdust bin to absorb the oil
B. Toss the rag in the trash can
C. Toss the rag in the flammable materials trash can
D. Wash it in the sink
37. If you do not understand how to operate a machine:
A. Use it anyway
B. Ask your instructor
C. Experiment with how it works
D. Watch others use it
38. If everyone is getting ready to do lab work but no one has started any machines:
A. Safety glasses are not needed
B. Only wear your glasses when machines start
C. Wear safety glasses at all times anyway
D. Safety glasses are not required for hand tools
39. If you get a small splinter in your finger from a piece of wood in the lab, and it does not bleed, then you should:
A. Not worry about it
B. Wash the wound
C. Dress the wound
D. Tell your instructor
40. If someone insults you during lab work, how should you react?
A. Stay clam
B. Never be afraid to show your emotions
C. Argue with the person
D. Ask your friends to watch out for you
41. There is a special event at school today, and you wear your tie and your new class ring. You have to do lab work, so you remove your tie but do not worry about your ring. Which statement below is most correct about lab safety?
A. The ring should also be removed; it could get caught in something
B. Leave the ring on; its small and should not get caught
C. It is unreasonable to be asked to remove either of these items
D. None of the above
42. You had a terrible cold and headache one morning, so before you left for school, your parents gave you aspirin and a cold pill. They made you feel better, but before technology education class the pills also made you feel just a little dizzy or light headed. What statement below is the most correct with regard to safety?
A. Do not worry about it
B. Work in the lab anyway; your lab assignment is due
C. Do not work in the lab, and tell your teacher about the medicine
D. Just have a friend keep an eye on you
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 3.01
1. The depth a vessel sits in the water is referred to as its:
A. Ballast
B. Displacement
C. Draft
D. Lift
2. Hydraulic systems control and transmit energy through:
A. Liquids
B. Gases
C. Solids
D. Hydrometers
3. The three axis upon which an aircraft rotates are: roll, pitch, and:
A. Rise
B. Wave
C.Lift
D. Yaw
4. Air that slows down a speeding automobile, forcing the driver to accelerate to maintain a steady speed is called:
A. Planetary force
B. Residual friction
C. Aerodynamic drag
D. Acceleration constant
5. A good example of torque is a:
A. Piston
B. "Maglev" train
C. Door knob
D. Latch
6. If a boat is moving 32 miles per hour (mph), its speed in knots is:
A. 36.8 knots
B. 27.82 knots
C. 0.03 knots
D. 33.15 knots
7. Power can be measured using the following formula:
A. P = w x t
B. P = t/w
C. P = w/t
D. P = t + w
8. If 80 units of work are applied to a mechanical system that lifts 20 units of weight, the system is said to be:
A. 4% efficient
B. 25% efficient
C. 40% efficient
D. 100% efficient
9. The greater amount of water displaced by the hull of a ship the greater the vessel's:
A. Buoyancy
B. Speed
C. Flotation
D. Draft
10. The formula for calculating the actual mechanical advantage is:
A. Output / x 100%
B. Productivity x efficiency
C. Input / output x 100%
D. Efficiency / productivity
11. The upward force that an airplane's wings produce to keep it in the air is called:
A. Lift
B. Pressure
C. Thrust
D. Suspension
12. "The amount of work accomplished in a given period of time" is a good definition of:
A. Effort
B. Energy
C. Power
D. Torque
13. The equation for force is:
A. Length x distance
B. Length x weight
C. Pressure x distance
D. Pressure x area
14. A satellite put into orbit will continue to orbit at a constant speed, unless acted upon by another force. The satellite's orbit is an example of:
A. Newton's first law of motion
B. Newton's second law of motion
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. Newton's fourth law of motion
15. A book sitting of the edge of a desk is an example of:
A. Mechanical energy
B. Gravitational energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Potential energy
16. The side to side movement on a boat is called:
A. Pitch
B. Keel
C. Tramp
D. Roll
17. The two forces which an aircraft must overcome in order to fly are:
A. Gravity and thrust
B. Drag and gravity
C. Thrust and lift
D. Drag and lift
18. The energy from a car's engine drives a crankshaft which spinsand produces power in the form of:
A. Effort
B. Friction
C. Torque
D. Pressure
19. Which of the following vessels displaces the LEAST amount of water?
A. Barge
B. Kayak
C. Oil tanker "with full shipment of oil"
D. Tugboat
20. Which force keeps water in a bucket when it is whirled around rapidly?
A. Coefficient of drag
B. Centrifugal force
C. Centripetal force
D. Geosynchrous orbit
21. A twisting or turning force is called:
A. Centripetal force
B. Diametric force
C. Torque
D. Distortion
22. In a space vehicle's orbit around the earth, the point at which the vehicle is farthest from the earth is called the:
A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Exosphere
D. Mesosphere
23. A solid object placed in a fluid less dense that itself will:
A. Sink
B. Float
C. Condense
D. None of the above
24. Which law of motion states that an unbalance of force on a body tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of force?
A. Newton's first law of motion
B. Newton's second law of motion
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. Newton's fourth law of motion
25. The energy required to lift 33,000 pounds exactly 1 foot in 1 minute is:
A. 1/3 Hp.
B. 1 Hp.
C. 3 Hp.
D. 33 Hp.
26. The force that resists the forward motion of an aircraft is called:
A. Gravity
B. Thrust
C. Drag
D. Lift
27. During flight, an aircraft can keep increasing its angle of attack until it:
A. Ices
B. Stalls
C. Turns over
D. Crashes
28. The natural force that tries to pull a plane to the ground is called:
A. Weight
B. Gravity
C. Pressure
D. Drag
29. The amount of energy a machine or engine successfully converts into usable energy is expressed in terms of the machine or engine's:
A. Motion
B. Combustion
C. Power
D. Efficiency
30. The force produced by a plane or rocket's propulsion system is called:
A. Thrust
B. Lift
C. Longitudinal
D. Reciprocating
31. Which law of motion states that a body or mass in motion tendsto remain in motion, unless acted upon by another force?
A. Newton's first law of motion
B. Newton's second law of motion
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. Newton's fourth law of motion
32. The production of electricity through the use of magnets or when a conductor passes through a magnetic field is electromagnetic:
A. Induction
B. Radiation
C. Valence
D. Flux
33. The device used to measure how much work an engine can produce in a unit of time is called a:
A. Dynamometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Tachometer
D. Torque wrench
34. Which law of motion states that for every acting force there is an equal and opposite reacting force?
A. Newton's first law of motion
B. Newton's second law of motion
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. Newton's fourth law of motion
35. In space vehicle's orbit around the earth, the point at which the vehicle is closest to the earth is called the:
A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Exosphere
D. Mesosphere
36. On a ship's propeller the angle of its blades is referred to as its:
A. Pitch
B. Law
C. Center
D. Roll
37. A household furnace consumes 50,000 BTUs each hour. The furnace actually outputs 42,000 BTUs into the home during this time. The efficiency of the furnace is:
A. 84%
B. 19%
C. 92%
D. 8%
38. A falling rock is an example of:
A. Mechanical energy
B. Gravitational energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Potential energy
39. Pneumatic Systems control and transmit energy through:
A. Liquids such as water or oil
B. Gases such as air
C. Solids such as copper
D. Pneumatism
40. Motion that produces a desired outcome including the factors force multiplied by distance is:
A. Effort
B. Energy
C. Power
D. Work
41. The stability of a vehicle may be influenced by its:
A. Shape
B. Proportions
C. Control system
D. All of the above
42. When two surfaces are rubbing against each other, what is created?
A. Lift
B. Friction
C. Roll
D. Centrifugal force
43. Centripetal Force is:
A. A force acting outward, such as the force exerted by water in he bottom of a bucket being swung around in a circle
B. A force acting inward, such as the force exerted by the handle of a bucket being swung around in a circle
C. A force that causes things to move, such as the force you exert on a car seat as the car accelerates.
D. A force created by an airplane wing as air moves faster across the top than it moves across the bottom
44. A Dynamometer is a device that can measure the:
A. Efficiency of a sail on a sailboat and give the designer the Prismatic Coefficient
B. Aerodynamic drag of a vehicle and can show how air currents move across around a vehicle with the use of smoke streams
C. Hydrodynamic efficiency of a model boat hull so designers can compare different shaped hulls without the expense of constructing full size hulls and extensive testing
D. Torque, horsepower, and fuel consumption of engines at different Rpm's and work loads by simulating actual working conditions
45. An example of potential energy would be a book:
A. Being raised to a shelf
B. Sitting on a shelf
C. Falling to the ground
D. Striking the ground
46. Anything that causes an object to move can be thought of as:
A. Horsepower
B. Torque
C. Force
D. Energy
47. An increase in force provided by a machine is a good definition of:
A. Efficiency
B. Work
C. A transmission
D. Mechanical advantage
48. A unit of measurement that will move a one pound load a distance of one foot is:
A. A newton
B. A foot-pound
C. One horsepower
D. One revolution per minute
49. The unit of measurement that will impact an acceleration of one meter per second to a mass of one kilogram is a:
A. Newton
B. Meter-kilogram
C. Metric-ton
D. Metric equivalent of one horsepower
50. A disadvantage of maglev vehicles is:
A. Steering
B. Deceleration
C. High energy consumption
D. None of the above
51. According to Ted Brewer in his book Understanding Boat Design 4th Edition, a good Prismatic Coefficient for a light air sailboat is:
A. .48
B. .62
C. .78
D. .92
52. The center of flotation is analogous to the center of:
A. Pressure
B. Gravity
C. Buoyancy
D. Effort
53. The displacement of a boat refers to the:
A. Weight of the water it moves when placed into the water
B. Depth of boat sits below the surface of the water
C. Length times the width times the depth of a boat in the water
D. Shape of the hull below the water
54. A good sail area to displacement ratio for high performance sailboat racer would be:
A. 15 to 16
B. 16 to 17
C. 17 to 18
D. 20 or more
55. The mainsail of a sailboat:
A. Provides the main source of power for a sailboat
B. Is used primarily for sailing down wind
C. Is placed to the front and side of the boat
D. None of the above
56. The jib or a sailboat:
A. Provides the main source of power for a sailboat
B. Is primarily used for sailing down wind
C. Accelerates wind traveling across the back of the mainsail thereby increasing lift
D. All of the above
57. The spinnaker of a sailboat:
A. Provides the main source of power for a sailboat
B. Is primarily used for sailing down wind
C. Accelerates wind traveling across the back of the mainsail thereby increasing lift
D. All of the above
58. When building for an RC glider:
A. Start at the wing tips and work to the fuselage
B. Make sure that you use a lot of glue
C. Assemble the wings before placing camber on them
D. Make sure that both halves are balanced
59. The angle at which an aircraft's wing is in relation to the direction of travel of the aircraft is referred to as the:
A. Angle of attack
B. Aspect ratio
C. Angle of incidence
D. Dihedral
60. A satellite having an equatorial orbit with an angular velocity the same as the earth, moon, or planet it is orbiting so that the position of the satellite is such an orbit is fixed with respect to that earth, moon, or planet is called:
A. Geostationary orbit
B. Geosynchronous orbit
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
61. In powered flight, if a rocket's center of gravity is farther from the nose that the center of pressure, the rocket will:
A. Fly smoothly
B. Become unstable
C. Move at its top speed
D. Have a low coefficient of drag
62. Telemetry refers to the:
A. Transmission of data usually by radio
B. Science of using telescopes to observe things such as planets
C. Method of location of space vehicles through triangulation
D. None of the above
63. Whether one is working with RC cars, boats, or planes, a RC set would include:
A. Transmitter, servo(s) and modulator
B. Transmitter, servo(s) and receiver
C. Transducer, servo(s) and resistor
D. Transducer, servo(s) and emitter
64. Which design criteria are most important for what one is designing will follow the fundamental principle of design that states "form follows":
A. Function
B. Aesthetics
C. Cost
D. Environmental impacts
65. Using an altitude tracker from 500' from your launch site, you launch a model rocket and track it to a maximum height which reads 45 degrees. How high did the rocket go?
A. 200 feet
B. 300 feet
C. 400 feet
D. 500 feet
66. In the design of transportation vehicles "vortices" refer to the:
A. Buoyancy of vessels in water
B. Patterns made by the fluid or air passing over or around the vehicle
C. Ratio of the lift to the coefficient of drag of airfoils
D. Amount of air needed by an engine for its most efficient operation
67. What does the concept "engineering" refer to in criteria for good design?
A. How well is something built
B. How beautiful is it
C. How comfortable is it
D. How much will it cost
68. To increase the efficiency of Maglev vehicles, it is best to design bodies which have:
A. High drag indexes
B. Low drag indexes
C. A low coefficient of drag
D. A high coefficient of drag
69. The point at which all aerodynamic forces (thrust, drag, lift, and gravity) are working is termed center of:
A. Effort
B. Pressure
C. Balance
D. Gravity
70. The coefficient of drag is:
A. A number used by automobile designers to indicate how easily a vehicle cuts through the air
B. Is the angle a plane's wing meets the air
C. Is the resistance given as a factor of a product of a vehicle's curvature
D. The water's resistance to the surface of a boat or ship
71. How much force on a sail verses how hard the sail pulls the boat is a question of the sail's:
A. Efficiency
B. Aerodynamic drag
C. Vortexes
D. Buoyancy
72. NASA can be accessed on the Internet and is an excellent source of scientific information. It is of special interest to designers of:
A. RC cars
B. RC boats
C. Model rockets
D. Model maglev trains
73. Bernoulli found that as the speed of a fluid is increased, its pressure is decreased. This makes which of the following possible?
A. Flight
B. Solar powered vehicles
C. Electric motors
D. Submarines
74. The aspect ratio refers to the:
A. Angle a plane cuts through the air compared to its thrust
B. Ration of a wing's span to its cord
C. Ratio of a ship's weight to what it can carry
D. Ratio of rocket's angle of re-entry to its speed
75. The higher the aspect ratio the grater the:
A. Plane's drag
B. Wing's efficiency
C. Tonnage a ship can carry
D. Rocket's re-entry speed
76. According to the NC Transportation Curriculum, when designers begin to design good products one of the first questions that should be asked is:
A. How much money will I make from this product
B. What purpose will this product serve
C. What will the aesthetic appeal of this product be
D. How can we market this product
77. It is important for someone studying transportation to understand Aerodynamics because:
A. Most forms of transportation will be affected by moving through air or air movement
B. A large number of transportation systems control and transmit energy through gases such as air
C. Transportation systems such as barges, ships, and submarines must travel through water
D. Almost all forms of transportation will use liquids to transmit and control energy
78. When designing and studying transportation systems it is important to understand hydronamics because:
A. Many transportation systems use liquids to transmit and control energy
B. Many transportation systems use gases such as air to control and transmit energy
C. Land and air forms of transportation are affected by hydronamics to a great degree
D. The study of water movement and objects moving through water constitute a large section of transportation
79. Center of gravity is:
A. The center of the thing that pulls us to the ground
B. The point at which all objects are balanced
C. The point at which all Aerodynamic forces are working
D. Analogous to the center of buoyancy on a hot air balloon
80. A land vehicle which uses magnetic fields to lift itself above the track it travels, is called a:
A. Monorail
B. Maglev train
C. Subway
D. Hovercraft
81. What is the correct term for the magnets which lift and maintain maglev trains above the track?
A. Positron
B. Negative force magnets
C. Lifting magnets
D. Repelling magnets
82. Magnets used in maglev vehicles used to propel the vehicles forward are called:
A. Positron magnets
B. Propulsion magnets
C. Conducting magnets
D. Repelling magnets
83. The material that produces little or no resistance to the flow of electricity and is used in making improved and highly efficient magnets are:
A. Super-conductors
B. Super-insulators
C. Electromagnetic converters
D. Nuclear magnetic generators
84. Instead of pounding along on tires or rails, maglev vehicles float on:
A. A hydroplane of water
B. A magnetic force field
C. A pneumatic bi-rail
D. Lift generated by Mag-wings
85. The superconducting magnets of the maglev train induce magnetism of the same polarity in the levitation magnet. As a result, the two sets of magnets:
A. Repel each other and push the train upward
B. Induce each other, and generate an electrical current to move the train
C. Attract each other, until they touch
D. Induce each other, and generate a nuclear reaction which propels the train
86. The three major advantages to using maglev trains are:
A. Speed, durability, and cost
B. Cost, size, and shape
C. Speed, quietness, and smoothness of ride
D. Speed, size, and cost
87. In geosynchronous orbit, a satellite:
A. Is always over the same spot on the earth
B. Is always moving randomly over the earth
C. Rotates, or spins, with respect to itself
D. Has no power
88. The speed of a maglev train is made faster or slower by the:
A. Size of the propulsion magnets used
B. Speed at which the polarity is reversed
C. Size of the levitation magnet
D. Direction of the thruster
89. The term "maglev" means magnetically:
A. Levitated
B. Launched
C. Levered
D. Leveled
90. Stored energy is a good definition for:
A. Wasted energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
C. Potential energy.
D. Heat energy.
91. The formula H=OF/I (H is the height of the camera above the surface, O is the size of the object on the ground shown in the photo, F is the focal length of the camera, and I is the size of the same object’s image as measured on the negative). This formula is used to measure the:
A. Size of the rocket.
B. Altitude at which a photo was taken.
C. Weight of the rocket.
D. Type and size of engine(s) needed for the rocket.
92. When constructing an RC glider, it is important that the wing has a:
A. Negative angle of incidence as well as the horizontal stabilizer.
B. Negative angle of incidence and the horizontal stabilizer a positive angle.
C. Positive angle of incidence as well as the horizontal stabilizer.
D. Positive angle of incidence and the horizontal stabilizer a negative angle.
93. A typical model rocket transmitter can be divided into four basic sections which are:
A. RF section, modulator, controller, and AC power supply.
B. RF section, transceiver, sensor, and AC power supply.
C. RF section, modulator, sensor, and power supply.
D. RF section, modulator, decoder, and controller.
94. When launching rockets, the launch site must be a field which is wide enough. On a day with little wind, a good rule of thumb is that the field at its most narrow dimension must be at least:
A. 25 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 100 feet.
D. Half of the maximum altitude the rocket will reach.
95. With regards to the sail boats the center of effect refers to the:
A. Amount of force applied by the wind on a sail.
B. Amount of force needed to move a boat through the water.
C. Center of the sail area.
D. Center of balance of a boat.
96. When preparing for rocketry photography, such as launching Astrocams, it is best to position the cameras:
A. At opposite ends of the rocket.
B. Near the nosecone, opposite each other.
C. On the shroud lines.
D. At the bottom of the rocket, opposite each other.
97. The “center of buoyancy” is the center of the:
A. Main mast.
B. Boat.
C. Boat’s displacement.
D. None of the above.
98. In a maglev train system, the components that
are used only when the superconducting
magnets are NOT activated are the:
A. Propulsion coils.
B. Suspension coils.
C. Guideways.
D. Support wheels.
99. An RC glider can rise on a column of warm air
to great altitudes. This column of air is called
a/an:
A. Riser.
B. Inversion.
C. Thermal.
D. Conversion.
100. Clustering engines together in high-power
rocketry should only be done with:
A. E20 composite engines.
B. F40 composite engines.
C. Black powder engines.
D. No type of engine; clustering is against the
law.
101. A “highpowered” model rocket is defined as a
rocket propelled by one or more engines that
provide a total impulse of more than:
A. 20 newton-seconds.
B. 100 newton-seconds.
C. 200 newton-seconds.
D. 1000 newton-seconds.
102. Because of the shape of an airfoil relative wind
moves at a greater velocity over the top of the
airfoil. This is the key principle in causing:
A. Thrust.
B. Drag.
C. Lift.
D. Both A and B.
103. Drag is the force that:
A. Resists the forward movement of a vehicle.
B. Resists the rearward movement of a vehicle.
C. Speeds up the forward movement of a
vehicle.
D. Speeds up the rearward movement of a
vehicle.
104. Work is force x distance; if a girl pushes a box
with 50 pounds of force and moves it a distance
of 0 feet, how much work has been done?
A. 0 foot pounds
B. 5 foot pounds
C. 50 foot pounds
D. 500 foot pounds
105. According to the NAR a model rocket may not
have more than how many ounces of solid
propellant:
A. 16 ounces.
B. 20 ounces.
C. 4 ounces.
D. 1.0 ounces.
106. When the tip of each half of the wing is higher
than the center, this is referred to as:
A. Diangular.
B. Dihedral.
C. Transverse.
D. Negative coefficient.
107. When first testing your RC glider, you should
launch:
A. From a hill top.
B. Into a thermal.
C. On a football field.
D. With the wind.
108. During the first test flight of your RC glider, if
the plane stalls, you should:
A. Add nose weight.
B. Reduce nose weight.
C. Add left or right rudder.
D. Use larger surgical tubing.
109. As a glider turns downwind, it has a tendency
for its airspeed (speed in relation to the air) to:
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain the same.
D. Increase its lift.
110. The "prismatic coefficient" is used to:
A. Compare the efficiency of sail shapes.
B. Compare hull shapes.
C. Estimate wind speeds.
D. Determine the lift generated by sails.
111. The advantage of dihedral design is that it:
A. Reduces roll.
B. Increases speed.
C. Decreases yaw.
D. Increases thrust.
112. The apogee of a rocket is:
A. Connected to the nosecone.
B. Its highest altitude reached.
C. Part of the electronic ignition system.
D. Its angle of attack as it goes through the air.
113. Generally, the higher a model rocket goes the:
A. Smaller the parachute should be.
B. Larger the parachute should be.
C. Less number of shroud lines needed.
D. Greater number of shroud lines needed.
114. Torque is a force which is said to be:
A. Linear.
B. Rotary.
C. Oscillating.
D. None of the above.
115. An advantage of a maglev vehicle is its:
A. Speed.
B. Energy needs.
C. Power.
D. Three degrees of freedom.
116. A disadvantage of a maglev vehicle is its:
A. Slowness.
B. Noise.
C. Bumpy ride.
D. High energy consumption.
117. A thermal is a column of:
A. Cool air rising.
B. Warm air rising.
C. Cool air falling.
D. Warm air falling.
118. Generally the higher a model rocket goes the:
A. Smaller the chute should be.
B. Larger the chute should be.
C. Shorter the shroud lines must be.
D. Longer the shroud lines should be.
119. Pressure x area is the equation for:
A. Horse power.
B. Force.
C. Effort.
D. Efficiency.
120. The NAR safety code for model rocketry states
that a model rocket must not weigh more than:
A. 16 ounces at liftoff.
B. 32 ounces at liftoff.
C. 3.3 pounds at liftoff.
D. 5 pounds at liftoff.
121. According to the NAR, a model rocket may not
have more than:
A. 4.4 ounces of propellant.
B. 8 ounces of propellant.
C. 16 ounces of propellant.
D. 32 ounces of propellant.
122. In model rocketry, the best parachutes are made
from:
A. Cotton.
B. Nylon.
C. Polyester.
D. Wool.
123. Constructing airplanes with smooth-surfaced
materials helps to reduce:
A. Drag.
B. Lift.
C. Thrust.
D. Propulsion.
124. Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of
fluid:
A. Increases, pressure decreases.
B. Decreases, pressure increases.
C. Stays constant, pressure increases.
D. Stays constant, pressure decreases.
125. Coefficient of drag is best reduced on a vehicle
by:
A. Increasing its front profile.
B. Increasing its wind resistance.
C. Decreasing its front profile.
D. Applying a heavy clear coat finish.
126. Stability may be greatly influenced by a
vehicle’s:
A. Shape.
B. Proportions.
C. Control system.
D. All of the above.
127. Several types of sails are used on sailboats
today. Which of the following is not used?
A. Mainsail
B. Jib
C. Spinnaker
D. Tacker
128. If a boat is traveling 20 knots, it is moving
about:
A. 5 mph.
B. 10 mph.
C. 23 mph.
D. 53 mph.
129. Stall occurs on a plane when which of the
following occurs?
A. When the plane is level with the ground
B. When the plane is slowly descending
C. When the plane is pitching very steeply
D. When the plane is on the ground
130. Model rocket transmitters consist of all of the
following except a/an:
A. RF propellant.
B. Sensor.
C. Modulator.
D. Igniter.
131. The three axes upon which an aircraft rotates
are: roll, yaw, and:
A. Wave.
B. Rise.
C. Pitch.
D. Lift.
132. The three axes upon which an aircraft rotates
are: pitch, yaw, and:
A. Drag.
B. Roll.
C. Rock.
D. Pivot.
133. Systems that control and transmit energy
through liquids such as water or oil are called:
A. Pneumatic systems.
B. Hydraulic systems.
C. Universal systems.
D. Digital systems.
134. Energy out divided by energy in × 100% is the
formula for:
A. Force.
B. Efficiency.
C. Power.
D. Work.
135. Using a machine to increase force is a measure
of:
A. Horse power.
B. Torque.
C. Mechanical advantage.
D. Newtons.
136. The upward force that a hydrofoil produces is
called:
A. Gravity.
B. Drag.
C. Thrust.
D. Lift.
137. The amount of work being done over a period of
time is:
A. Power.
B. Effort.
C. Energy.
D. Torque.
138. A twisting or turning force is a good definition
of:
A. Pitch.
B. Roll.
C. Yaw.
D. Torque.
139. A natural force that pulls objects to the earth is a
good definition of:
A. Lift.
B. Thrust.
C. Drag.
D. Gravity.
140. Systems that control and transmit energy
through gases such as air are called:
A. Pneumatic systems.
B. Hydraulic systems.
C. Universal systems.
D. Digital systems.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 3.02
1. What is the process of conceiving, inventing,
and organizing ideas mentally and
communicating these ideas to others in a form
that is easily understood?
A. Drafting
B. Prototyping
C. Manufacturing
D. Design
2. A Design Brief is used before the fabrication of
a vehicle. The first step in the development of a
design brief is:
A. To give a clear statement of the problem.
B. The research and review of literature.
C. To determine the specific design elements
you will focus on.
D. To list the step-by-step process involved.
3. Design, the process of conceiving and
conveying ideas, has two main functions. They
are:
A. To allow for artistic form.
B. To allow for technical function.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above.
4. Aesthetic design concepts have related
elements. Which of the following is NOT an
aesthetic element?
A. Style
B. Line
C. Mass
D. Cost
5. Which of the following design elements is used
in the design process to give the design
equilibrium?
A. Unity
B. Color
C. Balance
D. Mass
6. Which of the following design elements is used
in the design process to evoke emotion, weight,
and enhance design form?
A. Unity
B. Proportion
C. Space
D. Color
7. Which of the following design elements is used
in the design process to emphasize or
deemphasize certain design elements?
A. Contrast
B. Proportion
C. Space
D. Style
8. Which of the following design elements is used
in the design process to provide a sense of
weight or heaviness?
A. Unity
B. Mass
C. Proportion
D. Space
9. Which of the following design elements is used
in the design process to ensure similar elements
are used throughout the design?
A. Proportion
B. Space
C. Unity
D. Balance
10. During the design process, engineering criteria
for the aesthetics and ergonomics of a product
includes which element?
A. Unity
B. Material
C. Primary design
D. Safety
11. During the refinement stage of the design cycle,
which of the following is considered during this
stage?
A. Style
B. Design analysis
C. Financing
D. Space
12. When evaluating the design of a product,
considering how well the product works is
called:
A. Development.
B. Efficiency.
C. Performance.
D. Manufacturing process.
13. The third step in the development of a Design
Brief is:
A. The research and review of literature.
B. To give a clear statement of the problem.
C. To determine the specific design elements
you will focus on.
D. To list the step-by-step process involved.
14. The design element balance is defined as:
A. A sense of weight or heaviness.
B. Product equilibrium.
C. That which is used to evoke emotion.
D. The use of similar elements throughout the
design.
15. The Design Cycle and Process is made up of
which of the following processes?
A. Ideation
B. Refinement
C. Implementation
D. All of the above
16. During the design cycle and process, the first
stage is which of the following?
A. Problem identification
B. Design analysis
C. Planning
D. Modeling
17. The refinement process during the design cycle
includes which of the following?
A. Marketing
B. Design visualization
C. Documenting
D. Financing
18. During the implementation stage of the design
cycle, which element is included?
A. Problem identification
B. Design analysis
C. Servicing
D. Modeling
19. Which design concept is concerned with the
look and feel of a product?
A. Aesthetics
B. Function
C. Comfort
D. Materials
20. Which design concept is concerned with the
mechanics of a product or process?
A. Design
B. Function
C. Manufacturing
D. Production
21. Ergonomics in the design process include all of
the following, EXCEPT:
A. Function.
B. Comfort.
C. Efficiency.
D. Beauty.
22. The final section of the Design Brief contains
the:
A. Evaluation Criteria.
B. Drawings, Bibliography, and Attachments.
C. Plan of Work.
D. Research and Review of Literature.
23. The vehicular sub system that holds the rest of
the vehicle together is the:
A. Suspension system.
B. Control system.
C. Structural system.
D. Propulsion system.
24. Aesthetic form is concerned with the:
A. Look and feel of a product.
B. Ergonomics of a product.
C. Function of a product.
D. Mechanics of a product.
25. Functionality of a product is concerned with the:
A. Look and feel of a product.
B. Ergonomics of a product.
C. Function of a product.
D. Aesthetics of a product.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 4.01
1. Which of the following statements concerning
space transportation is NOT true?
A. The first satellite was the Russian Sputnik I.
B. Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin
accomplished the first lunar landing.
C. The first casualties of the space program
happened on Apollo 13.
D. Russia's Yuri Gagarin was the first man to
orbit the earth in space.
2. In 1919, American Dr. Robert H. Goddard
published a book, A Method of Reaching
Extreme Altitudes; he designed and launched
the first:
A. I.C.B.M.
B. Liquid fueled rocket.
C. Satellite.
D. None of the above.
3. The launch of the first liquid fueled rocket by
Robert Goddard:
A. Was the beginning of the space race.
B. Proved that the US was better than Russia.
C. Proved that liquid rockets were better than
solid fueled rockets.
D. Paved the way for manned and unmanned
space vehicles.
4. The first sucessful heavier-than-air powered
flight in America was accomplished by:
A. Orville and Wilbur Wright.
B. Otto Lilienthal.
C. Hugo Junkers.
D. Charles Lindbergh.
5. Air transportation is the fastest mode of travel
because:
A. Airplanes can fly in a straight line.
B. Most planes are much faster than land
vehicles.
C. There are no speed limits.
D. All of the above.
6. What two inventions set the stage for
automobiles?
A. The carriage and the bicycle
B. The steamboat and the bicycle
C. The steamboat and the carriage
D. The roadway system and the bicycle
7. The first powered heavier-than-air flight was
made by:
A. John Glenn.
B. The Wright Brothers.
C. The Montgolfier Brothers.
D. Amelia Earhart.
8. Because they were more reliable and less
expensive, sailing ships were replaced by:
A. Steamships.
B. Airplanes.
C. Trains.
D. Submarines.
9. The development of electric power for
propulsion allowed for the construction of:
A. Super trains.
B. Maglev trains.
C. Subways.
D. Monorails.
10. Which mode of transportation played an
important role in the settlement of the west?
A. Railroads
B. Highways
C. Canals
D. None of the above
11. What is the advantage of railroads?
A. Less expensive than trucking
B. More reliable than most cars
C. Used to carry large shipments over long
distances
D. All of the above
12. This invention helped sailors maintain a
constant course.
A. Compass
B. Quadrant
C. Rudder
D. Telescope
13. Henry Ford’s use of the assembly line to
produce Model Ts made them:
A. More expensive.
B. Cost the same.
C. Less expensive.
D. None of the above.
14. The rise of the Roman Empire depended on
their:
A. Chariots.
B. Coliseums.
C. Monotheism.
D. Roads.
15. Robert Goddard is generally considered the
modern father of:
A. Powered flight.
B. Steam power.
C. The automotive industry.
D. Rocketry.
16. Unmanned space flights allow for:
A. Gathering of information from distances to
far for manned space flight.
B. Placement of satelites into orbit.
C. Gathering of information on distant planets.
D. All of the above.
17. What early invention allowed sailors to
determine latitude?
A. Compass
B. Quadrant
C. Rudder
D. Telescope
18. Henry Ford made the automobile:
A. Affordable.
B. Hard to operate.
C. A luxury only the upper class could afford.
D. Expensive.
19. The development of the hot air balloon:
A. Made the Montgolfier Brothers famous.
B. Allowed for its use in war.
C. Started a new tourist industry.
D. Showed that hot air rises.
20. Robert Goddard launched the first:
A. Glider.
B. Kite.
C. Hot air balloon.
D. Liquid fueled rocket.
21. The launch of Sputnik I started the:
A. First World War.
B. Space age.
C. Information age.
D. Communication age.
22. Yuri Gagarin was the first:
A. To break the sound barrier.
B. Man to sail across the Atlantic.
C. Human in space.
D. Man to ride in a hot air balloon.
23. The first human in space was:
A. Yuri Gagarin.
B. Neal Armstrong.
C. Robert Goddard.
D. Buskov Miller.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.01
1. Which of the following gear systems would
provide the most pushing power for a tow truck?
A. A motor turning a small gear driving a small
gear driving the rear wheels
B. A motor turning a small gear driving a large
gear driving the rear wheels
C. A motor turning a large gear driving a large
gear driving the rear wheels
D. A motor turning a large gear driving a small
gear driving the rear wheels
2. The diesel fuel in modern locomotive engines is
burned in an engine which is used to:
A. Turn a generator to make electricity.
B. Turn a large, multispeed transmission to
power the wheels.
C. Power the compressor section of the turbine
drive engine.
D. Power the wheels through a special fluid
turbine transmission.
3. Transportation companies have been
experimenting with new vehicles that use
electromagnetic principles for propulsion and
suspension. These systems are generally called:
A. Third rail systems.
B. Maglevs.
C. Electroprops.
D. Polarization Modules.
4. The main difference between solid rocket
engines and liquid rocket engines is:
A. The amount of thrust produced is greater in
a solid rocket.
B. Liquid rockets are heavier.
C. Solid rockets are no longer used.
D. A liquid rocket engine may be throttled to
control thrust.
5. Some advantages of a diesel engine are all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Their fuel economy and reliability.
B. Diesel engines are about 25% more efficient
than gasoline engines.
C. Their reliability.
D. Diesel engines are much heavier in weight
than gasoline engines.
6. Which type of sail improved the
maneuverability of ships and encouraged
increased exploration of uncharted land?
A. Square-rigged
B. Lateen
C. Dhow
D. Slant-rigged
7. In theory, if the propeller of a boat has a pitch of
(9) nine, then it will move a boat forward how
far with one rotation?
A. 9 inches
B. 9 degrees
C. 9 feet
D. 9 centimeters
8. About what percentage of energy produced by
burning diesel oil in a diesel engine is converted
into motion?
A. 40%
B. 5%
C. 50%
D. 70%
9. One of the least efficient but most widely used
energy conversion devices for transportation is
the:
A. External rotary combustion engine.
B. Internal combustion engine.
C. Automatic transmission.
D. Electric motor.
10. The force that propels an inflated balloon
around a room demonstrates thesame principles
as a:
A. Diesel engine.
B. Piston engine.
C. Wankel engine.
D. Jet engine.
11. A friction clutch is:
A. Part of the transportation system.
B. Widely used in vehicles with manually
operated transmissions.
C. A mechanical device that separates the
power system from the drive system.
D. All of the above.
12. As a component of fluid power systems, pumps
produce and transmit pressure. The following
are different types of pumps EXCEPT:
A. Hydraulic.
B. Gear.
C. Disk.
D. Centrifugal.
13. Which of the following engines is an example of
an external combustion engine?
A. Diesel engine
B. Steam engine
C. Wankel engine
D. Rocket engine
14. A device that uses steam to produce rotary
motion is called a/an:
A. Auxiliary steam engine.
B. Stirling cycle engine.
C. Steam turbine engine.
D. Reciprocating engine.
15. In internal combustion engines, pistons produce
a:
A. Reciprocating motion.
B. Rotary motion.
C. Circular motion.
D. Linear motion.
16. The output of a linear motion engine, such as a
jet engine, is measured as:
A. Velocity.
B. Distance.
C. Torque.
D. Thrust.
17. The output of a reciprocating or rotary engine is
always measured as:
A. Velocity.
B. Distance.
C. Torque.
D. Thrust.
18. The major source of energy for transportation
systems is:
A. Nuclear energy.
B. Electricity.
C. Solar energy.
D. Petroleum.
19. All nuclear-fueled ships in the United States
Navy are powered by:
A. Reciprocating engines.
B. Steam turbine engines.
C. Piston engines.
D. Stirling engines.
20. An example of an external combustion engine is
the:
A. Reaction engine.
B. Diesel engine.
C. Steam engine.
D. Rotary engine.
21. Diesel-electric propulsion systems are most
commonly found in:
A. Ship engines.
B. Aircraft engines.
C. Truck engines.
D. Train engines.
22. Friction and centrifugal are two common types
of:
A. Clutches.
B. Step pulleys.
C. Gear teeth.
D. Drive shafts.
23. Fuel is ignited by the intense heat of
compression in:
A. Rotary engines.
B. Gasoline engines.
C. Diesel engines.
D. Four-stroke cycle engines.
24. The most powerful internal combustion engine
is the:
A. Steam engine.
B. Diesel engine.
C. Jet engine.
D. Rocket engine.
25. What do many automobiles use to transfer
power from the engine to the drive wheels?
A. Pistons
B. Step pulleys
C. Gear teeth
D. Power train
26. The greatest advantage of the diesel engine is
its:
A. Large size.
B. Heavy structure.
C. Durable casing.
D. Fuel economy.
27. Two-stroke cycle and the four-stroke cycle are
types of:
A. Turbojet engines.
B. Gasoline piston engines.
C. Jet engines.
D. Rotary engines.
28. An example of an internal combustion engine
which produces a linear motion is a:
A. Turbojet engine.
B. Gasoline piston engine.
C. Jet engine.
D. Rotary engine.
29. Reciprocating motion is changed to rotary
motion in what type of engine?
A. Steam engine
B. Steam turbine
C. Stirling engine
D. Both A and C
30. Identify the engine which would fit in the
Reaction engines category.
A. Wankel engine
B. Electric engine
C. Ramjet engine
D. Piston engine
31. In a diesel engine, fuel is ignited by glow plugs
and:
A. Speed.
B. Friction.
C. Compression.
D. Air.
32. Nearly all automobiles are powered by:
A. Wankel engines.
B. Stirling engines.
C. Gasoline engines.
D. Two-stroke cycle engines.
33. The action in a jet engine is:
A. Continuous.
B. Non-continuous.
C. Reciprocating.
D. In the form of torque.
34. On a ship’s propeller, a lower pitch causes:
A. Greater speed.
B. Greater pulling power.
C. Lower pulling power.
D. Greater slip ratio.
35. Wankel engines produce a:
A. Linear motion.
B. Rotary motion.
C. Reciprocating motion.
D. Alternating motion.
36. How energy efficient are heat engines?
A. Less than 50% efficient
B. Between 50 and 70% efficient
C. Between 70 and 90% efficient
D. Approximately 95% efficient
37. Diesel engines are known for:
A. Low weight.
B. Power and dependability.
C. High operating costs.
D. Maintenance problems.
38. The Wankel engine is:
A. A type of internal combustion engine.
B. A type of external combustion engine.
C. Obsolete.
D. A type of rocket engine.
39. Induction motors:
A. Use AC current only.
B. Use DC or AC current.
C. Are more troublefree than universal motors.
D. Both A and C.
40. Steam turbine engine is an example of a/an:
A. Turbo jet engine.
B. External combustion engine.
C. Internal combustion engine.
D. Rocket engine.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.02
1. Which guidance system sends out radio waves
that bounce off objects and return to a receiver,
which then determines how far away the objects
are?
A. Sonar
B. Radar
C. Loran
D. Omega
2. In alerting the device or operator, the purpose of
Guidance systems is to:
A. Provide comfort.
B. Provide freedom from damage to people or
things carried.
C. Support the vehicle in its environment.
D. Pressure and/or to warn of impending
danger.
3. Before operating a transportational vehicle, the
operator must have these three kinds of
guidance information: direction of travel, speed,
and:
A. Time of day.
B. Traffic.
C. Destination.
D. Traveling companion.
4. The location of radio transmitters can be seen
on:
A. Aeronautical charts.
B. Nautical charts.
C. Road maps.
D. Tourist maps.
5. Which method uses a compass to read the
b.earings of visible landmarks and a chart to
d.etermine the vehicle's location?
A. Dead reckoning
B. Piloting
C. Circumnavigation
D. VOR
6. A method for determining a vehicle's position
by estimating how far and in what direction it
has come from its last known position is called:
A. Radio sextant application.
B. Piloting.
C. Gyro-compassing method.
D. Dead reckoning.
7. The development of this instrument allowed
early ocean navigators to cross wide bodies of
water without having to rely on landmarks.
A. Sundial
B. Telescope
C. Compass
D. Hydrometer
8. The relationship of large land masses such as
the North American Continent, can be seen on
a/an:
A. Globe.
B. Aeronautical chart.
C. Nautical chart.
D. Sextant.
9. The navigational system that is widely used
worldwide to guide ships and planes that are
approaching the coast is:
A. VOR.
B. Loran.
C. Omega.
D. NAVSAT.
10. How do the Omega and Loran Navigational
Systems differ?
A. One guides ships while the other guides
planes
B. One uses satellites
C. One is long range
D. One is world wide
11. What is the process for traveling from one
position to another and knowing where you are
in relation to your desired course?
A. Latitude
B. Position
C. Navigation
D. G. P. S.
12. On a scale map, what decreases as the
denominator in the ratio increases?
A. Detail
B. Land area
C. Numerator
D. Chart size
13. What guidance device would the average person
use to travel across the United States in a car?
A. Compass
B. Light
C. Map
D. Radio
14. How many longitudinal degrees are measured
on the globe?
A. 66
B. 90
C. 180
D. 360
15. Which of the following is an example of a
guidance system?
A. Jib
B. Wheel
C. Road sign
D. Rudder
16. What would a ship use to determine the water
depth?
A. Sonar
B. Radar
C. Loran
D. Omega
17. What navigational device is designed to point to
true north?
A. Sextant
B. Compass
C. Gyrocompass
D. Sonar
18. The navigational system with a very highfrequency
omnidirectional range is:
A. VOR.
B. Loran.
C. Omega.
D. NAVSAT.
19. Guidance systems give a vehicle's operator
warning signals, direction, and:
A. Location.
B. Pressure.
C. Speed.
D. All of the above.
20. Stop lights, lighthouses, and buoys are all parts
of:
A. Suspension systems.
B. Control systems.
C. Guidance systems.
D. Structural systems.
21. Lines on the globe that run from North Pole to
the South Pole are called:
A. Latitudes.
B. Longitudes.
C. Pole lines.
D. Vertical lines.
22. Lines on the Globe that run parallel to the
equator are called:
A. Latitudes.
B. Longitudes.
C. Pole lines.
D. Vertical lines.
23. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
Navigational Marker?
A. Channel Markers
B. Road signs
C. Buoys
D. Radials
24. What type of system is used for navigating ships
and submarines?
A. VOR
B. NAVSAT
C. JEER
D. TeleStar
25. A map that is shaped like a sphere is called a/an:
A. Log.
B. Nautical chart.
C. Globe.
D. VOR.
26. A Gyrocompass points to:
A. True South.
B. Geographic South.
C. True North.
D. Geographic North.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.03
1. Systems which provide for multiplying,
dividing, or reversing the mechanical power
coming from engines or motors are called:
A. Transmission systems.
B. Suspension systems.
C. Hydraulic systems.
D. Pneumatic systems.
2. The small rotor on the rear of a helicopter is
used to offset what forces caused by the main
rotor?
A. Pitch
B. List
C. Roll
D. Torque
3. Hot air balloons control:
A. Direction by using rudders.
B. Speed by propellers.
C. Altitude by the amount of hot air in the
balloon.
D. Altitude and direction through the use of
thrusters and ballast.
4. Control systems are designed to control a
vehicle's position in space, and:
A. Speed and direction.
B. Support it in its environment.
C. Determine danger.
D. Protect passengers from the surrounding
environment.
5. Steering wheels, brakes, and auotmatic pilots
are all examples of transportation:
A. Control systems.
B. Support systems.
C. Suspension systems.
D. Structural systems.
6. Mechanical devices that control the separation
and joining of power to drive systems are:
A. Differentials.
B. Drive shafts.
C. Clutches.
D. Brakes.
7. If one aileron were lowered and the other raised,
the plane would:
A. Dive.
B. Climb.
C. Roll.
D. Stall.
8. How many degrees of freedom does a train
have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
9. Caster is desired in a steering system because it:
A. Is considerably less expensive.
B. Is easier to maintain.
C. Is considerably stronger than conventional
methods.
D. Makes it much easier to steer the vehicle.
10. To control direction, which vehicles use a fixed
rail system?
A. Cars
B. Trucks
C. Planes
D. Trains
11. Rockets use which of the following to change
directions?
A. Rudder
B. Aileron
C. Nozzle direction
D. All of the above
12. How many degrees of freedom does a helicopter
have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
13. To increase the speed of different types of
vehicles one may:
A. Increase the fuel consumption of the engine.
B. Change sail position.
C. Change the pitch or speed of the propeller.
D. All of the above.
14. In control systems, the number of changes in
direction a vehicle can make is called:
A. Degrees of freedom.
B. Directional degrees.
C. Mobility.
D. Maneuverability.
15. On aircraft, the longitudinal axis, “roll” is
controlled by the:
A. Fuselage.
B. Elevators.
C. Rudder.
D. Ailerons.
16. Which device allows an airplane to change its
compass heading?
A. Ailerons
B. Fuselage
C. Rudder
D. Tail
17. Which of the following vehicles has (1) one
degree of freedom?
A. Train
B. Car
C. Boat
D. Helicopter
18. Which of the following vehicles has (2) two
degrees of freedom?
A. Train
B. Car
C. Mag leu vehicle
D. Helicopter
19. Which of the following vehicles has (3) three
degrees of freedom?
A. Train
B. Car
C. Boat
D. Helicopter
20. Which of the following vehicles has (3) three
degrees of freedom?
A. Train
B. Car
C. Vertical take off and landing jet aircraft
D. Mag leu vehicle
21. The number of changes in the direction a
vehicle can make is a good definition of:
A. Mobility.
B. Maneuverability.
C. Degrees of freedom.
D. Directional limitations.
22. An airplane relies on:
A. An elevator to change pitch.
B. An aileron to change pitch.
C. A rudder to change pitch.
D. An fuselage to change pitch.
23. Tanks and bulldozers can change direction by:
A. Engaging thrusters.
B. Engaging directional control wheels.
C. Making one track go faster than another.
D. Reversing their transmission.
24. Drum and disc are two types of:
A. Suspension systems.
B. Propulsion systems.
C. Transmission systems.
D. Brake systems.
25. To steer a boat one must turn the:
A. Elevator.
B. Stabilizer.
C. Keel.
D. Rudder.
26. What does a boat rely on to control direction?
A. Aiglerons
B. Thrust direction nossels
C. Elevators
D. Rudder
27. To control roll, an airplane relies on:
A. Aielerons.
B. Elevators.
C. A rudder.
D. A fuselage.
28. Hot air balloons control altitude by:
A. Elevators.
B. The amount of hot air in the balloon.
C. Thrust produced by rockets.
D. The angle of attack of the wings.
29. The “camber” of a wheel refers to the:
A. Amount of traction it has.
B. Wheels suspension properties.
C. Angle it is to the road.
D. Number of “layers” or “belts” it has.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.04
1. An aircraft is suspended in air by its wings.
This is made possible by the lift which is made
by the:
A. Air moving more quickly under its wings.
B. Air moving more quickly over the top of the
wings.
C. Buoyancy of the vehicle in relation to the air
around it.
D. Coefficient of drag created by the thrust of
its engines.
2. A boat that rises above the surface of the water
on “wings” that remain in the water is called
a(an):
A. Planer.
B. Jet ski.
C. Hydrofoil.
D. Airboat.
3. Which type of boat hull is designed to skim on
the surface of the water once the boat reaches its
optimum speed?
A. Displacement
B. Planing
C. Hydrofoil
D. Air-cushioned
4. Trains which have no physical contact with
tracks and instead use electromagnetic fields are
called:
A. Subways.
B. L-trains.
C. Maglevs.
D. Turbolifts.
5. Boats with round hulls provide for low hydro
dynamic drag at sub-planning speeds. However,
they are also:
A. The least stable.
B. Most expensive.
C. Displace the most water.
D. Most fragile.
6. A stabilizer bar prevents a/an:
A. An aircraft from bumps caused by erratic
winds.
B. Ship from excessive roll.
C. Train from leaving the track at high speeds.
D. Car from leaning too far when turning.
7. Flat, round, catamarans, and hydrofoils are all
types of:
A. Boats.
B. Wing designs.
C. Hull designs.
D. Plenum chambers.
8. Pneumatic tires provide a cushioning effect
because:
A. Air compresses.
B. Oil compresses.
C. Water compresses.
D. Pneumatium compresses.
9. The four forces that affect a plane in flight are
lift, weight (gravity), thrust, and:
A. Propulsion.
B. Compression.
C. Combustion.
D. Drag.
10. Land suspension systems are made up of tires,
springs, shock absorbers, and:
A. T-props.
B. Steering cables.
C. Stabilizer bars.
D. Centering drivers.
11. The boats which tend to be the LEAST stable
have:
A. Round hulls.
B. Flat bottom hulls.
C. Tri-hulls.
D. Semi-Vee bottom hulls.
12. The main purpose of a shock absorber is to
reduce:
A. Damage resulting from a head-on collision.
B. Spring oscillation.
C. Torque forces of an engine.
D. The braking forces of air brakes.
13. In marine vessels, the hull designed to carry
heavy loads is called a:
A. Displacement hull.
B. Planing hull.
C. Delta hull.
D. Conical hull.
14. When electromagnetic fields are used to lift an
object the technique is called:
A. Magnetic levitation.
B. Tractor beam.
C. Matter-Energy convertor.
D. Electrogenerator.
15. The following vehicles ALL produce lift
through the use of an airfoil EXCEPT:
A. Biplane.
B. Helicopter.
C. Jet.
D. Balloon.
16. Which of the following vehicles is capable of
both land and water travel upon an air cushion?
A. Hovercraft
B. ATV
C. Four-wheeler
D. Airplane
17. Displacement hulls in marine vessels are
specifically designed to:
A. Travel at high speeds.
B. Carry heavy loads.
C. Reduce drag.
D. Skim across the top of the water.
18. Pneumatic tires are filled with:
A. Oil.
B. Air.
C. Water.
D. Pneumatium.
19. Both balloons and boats are kept afloat by the:
A. Gravitational forces acting on them.
B. Thrust created by their engines.
C. Buoyancy of their vehicles.
D. Lift created by their foils.
20. Lift on a helicopter is created by the:
A. Props.
B. Elevators.
C. Rotor blades.
D. Airfoils.
21. What is used to give blimps lift?
A. Hot air
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Helium
22. All heavier-than-air aircraft rely on:
A. Propellers to provide thrust.
B. Rotors to provide lift.
C. Wings to fly.
D. Airfoils to provide lift.
23. The buoyancy of a submarine is controlled by:
A. Its rudder.
B. Speed.
C. Inflation tubes.
D. Flotation tanks.
24. Which of the following hulls is the most stable?
A. Round bottom
B. Flat bottom
C. Semi-Vee bottom
D. Catamarans and tri-hulls
25. A hydrofoil is lifted out of the water by:
A. Thrusters.
B. A cushion of air.
C. The lift created by its foils.
D. Its propellers.
26. Which device relies on hot air to produce lift?
A. Blimp
B. Balloon
C. Dirigible
D. Wing
27. Flotation tanks on a submarine control:
A. Direction.
B. Speed.
C. Thrust.
D. Buoyancy.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.05
1. The main advantage of monocoque design for
plane fuselages is that this design:
A. Provides considerably more storage space
than truss design.
B. Is much less expensive to build than truss
design.
C. Is much less in weight than truss design.
D. None of the above.
2. Larger cars generally have conventional frames,
tend to be safer, and tend to:
A. Rattle more.
B. Be quieter.
C. Be less fuel efficient.
D. Be less expensive because of conventional
rather than unibody construction.
3. In modern aircraft common alloys are used to
make the skin. What is NOT one of these
alloys?
A. Titanium
B. Magnesium
C. Alumunum
D. Iron oxide
4. The main difference in blimps and zepplins is:
A. Blimps are not as fast as zepplins.
B. Zepplins are not as fast as blimps.
C. Blimps have rigid envelopes, zepplins have
non-rigid.
D. Blimps have non-rigid envelops, zepplins
have rigid envelops.
5. A major disadvantage of plastics versus steel in
car construction is that plastics:
A. Do not withstand impact as well as steel.
B. Tend to weigh more than steel.
C. Have a higher coefficient of drag.
D. All of the above.
6. Unibody, truss system, and monocoque all refer
to:
A. Suspension systems.
B. Control systems.
C. Structural systems.
D. Bridge designs.
7. When you refer to the envelop of a lighter-thanair
aircraft you are refering to:
A. The part that contains the hot air or helium.
B. The part that contains the passenger.
C. The part that contains the cargo.
D. All of the above.
8. The main parts of an automobile structure are
the body and the:
A. Sub-body.
B. Chassis.
C. Spacers.
D. Fiberglass.
9. Usually how many columns support the roof on
most automobiles?
A. 10
B. 2
C. 7
D. 6
10. Airships with nonrigid or semirigid construction
are called:
A. Balloons.
B. Blimps.
C. Zeppelins.
D. Framework.
11. Another name for the bag that holds the air in
airships is a/an:
A. Hydrogen collector.
B. Air bag.
C. Envelope.
D. Antigravity pouch.
12. Another name for the tail section of an aircraft
is:
A. Empenage.
B. Rudder.
C. Aft.
D. Port.
13. What force are submarines designed to
withstand?
A. Shear
B. Stress
C. Pressure
D. Torque
14. Airplanes with the wings and fuselage formed of
one shell are called:
A. Hollow.
B. Strong.
C. Monocoque.
D. Many chambers.
15. The body of an airplane is called a:
A. Chamber.
B. Compartment.
C. Fuselage.
D. Cabin.
16. The term monocoque means:
A. Hollow.
B. Strong.
C. One shell.
D. Many chambers.
17. Rigid airships are sometimes referred to as:
A. Balloons.
B. Blimps.
C. Zeppelins.
D. Framework.
18. What is NOT a factor in designing space craft?
A. A vehicle's destination
B. Whether it is manned or unmanned
C. The task to be performed
D. The color of its skin
19. Another name for unibody construction is:
A. Monobody.
B. Monoframe.
C. Integral frame.
D. Unichassis.
20. The fuselage of an airplane provides for:
A. Structural support of wings.
B. Storage area for cargo and passengers.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.
VoCATS QUESTIONS FOR OBJECTIVE 5.06
1. What is the reason why passenger and cargo
approach the airport from one side and air traffic
from the other?
A. To protect passengers from exhaust fumes
B. To allow passenger to pick up cargo
C. To keep the length of conveyer belts down
D. To provide smooth traffic flow for land and
air vehicles
2. Which U.S. government organization demands
thorough inspections of aircraft on a regular
basis?
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. FAA
D. No organization
3. The first part of road construction, which is the
foundation, is called:
A. The paving.
B. The roadbed.
C. Painting the lines.
D. Substructure.
4. Which of the following is the first layer of a
railbed?
A. Ballast
B. Crossties
C. Rails
D. Subballast
5. Waterway locks are used for which of the
following?
A. Equalizing water level
B. Equalizing water pressure
C. Stopping water flow
D. Stopping ships from sailing
6. A dry dock:
A. Allows cars to drive through the ocean.
B. Dries a sunken ship.
C. Allows planes to land in the ocean.
D. Drains water from around a ship for
maintenance.
7. Which U.S. government organization is
responsible for space exploration?
A. FEMA
B. OFAC
C. NASA
D. OSHA
8. What are private companies which work for
NASA called?
A. Contractors
B. Subcontractors
C. Booster boys
D. Cliques
9. What does TBM stand for in land structure
systems?
A. Transportational Barrier Mathematics
B. Theory of Bridge Making
C. Tube building
D. Tunnel boring machines
10. Which of the following types of bridges is the
oldest?
A. Beam
B. Cantilever
C. Arch
D. Suspension
11. Which technique is used to find micro fissures
in a plane’s hull?
A. Submersion
B. Magnetic fields
C. Tactile response
D. Broken air current
12. A cross section of a railroad rail would resemble
a/an:
A. R-rail.
B. Rail tie.
C. C-beam.
D. I-beam.
13. What is the term for removing excess earth from
a hill and placing it in a low area?
A. Ditching
B. Cuts and fills
C. Terraforming
D. Erosion
14. What time intervals are used to regulate
maintenance schedules?
A. The number of hours
B. The number of flights
C. The number of years
D. The number of light years
15. Which of the following are not located in the
conning tower?
A. Polarization Rods
B. Radio antennas
C. Radar equipment
D. Periscopes
16. Which of the following propulsion systems were
used on the Apollo mission?
A. Light drive
B. Separation
C. Staging
D. Warp drive
17. What is NOT one of the major components of
the shuttle orbiter?
A. Impulse Modifier
B. Fuselage
C. Vertical stablizer
D. Crew Compartment
18. Runway lights DO NOT:
A. Show direction.
B. Flash if the pilot is off course.
C. Help determine the width of the runway.
D. Help to see in bad weather conditions.
19. Which of these is not a passenger facility?
A. Bus station
B. Airport terminals
C. Dry docks
D. Train stations
20. On arch bridges where can roads be located?
A. Above
B. Below
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
21. As engines are becoming more advanced they
are becoming easier for anyone to fix.
A. True
B. False
22. On a submarine the conning tower is located on
the bottom of the submarine.
A. True
B. False